AAPC CPC Practice Exam - 102 Unique Questions [Q29-Q47] | DumpsMaterials

AAPC CPC Practice Exam - 102 Unique Questions [Q29-Q47]

Share

AAPC CPC Practice Exam - 102 Unique Questions

Latest Questions CPC Guide to Prepare Free Practice Tests


AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Provide practical application of coding operative reports and evaluation and management services
  • Understand and apply the official ICD-10-CM coding guidelines
Topic 2
  • Identify the information in appendices of the CPT® code book
  • List the major features of HCPCS Level II codes
Topic 3
  • Apply coding conventions when assigning diagnoses and procedure codes
  • Identify the purpose of the CPT®, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II code books
Topic 4
  • Code a wide variety of patient services using CPT®, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II codes
  • Explain the determination of the levels of E
  • M services

 

NEW QUESTION # 29
Dr. Burns sees newborn baby James at the birthing center on the same day after the cesarean delivery. Dr.
Burns examined baby James, the maternal and newborn history, ordered appropriate blood test tests and hearing screening. He met with the family at the end of the exam.
How would Dr. Bums report his services?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
Dr. Burns is providing initial hospital or birthing center care for the evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. CPT code 99460 is used to report initial hospital or birthing center care, per day, for evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. This includes a comprehensive history, examination, and medical decision-making. The description of the service provided fits this CPT code accurately.
References: CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.


NEW QUESTION # 30
A 55-year-old patient with suspected liver cancer was seen by the physician to obtain a biopsy. The special biopsy needle was placed using ultrasonic guidance. The physician obtained a small tissue sample from the liver, which was then sent to pathology.
What CPT codes are reported?

  • A. 47100, 77012-26
  • B. 47000, 76942-26
  • C. 47000, 77002-26
  • D. 47000, 10005

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 31
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?

  • A. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
  • B. 10005, 10006 x 2
  • C. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
  • D. 10006 x 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
The CPT code 10005 is for fine needle aspiration biopsy, including ultrasound guidance, for the first lesion.
CPT code 10006 is for each additional lesion with ultrasound guidance. Since the provider aspirated tissue from three nodules, the coding should be 10005 for the first nodule and 10006 x 2 for the additional two nodules.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 32
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?

  • A. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
  • B. 10005, 10006 x 2
  • C. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
  • D. 10006 x 3

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 33
A 25-year-old woman underwent percutaneous breast biopsy on the right breast with placement of a Gelmark clip. The procedure was performed using stereotactic imaging.
What CPT codes will be reported?

  • A. 19100, 76098
  • B. 19101, 19283
  • C. 0
  • D. 19081, 19283

Answer: C

Explanation:
CPT code 19081 is used for percutaneous biopsy of breast(s) using stereotactic guidance, which includes the placement of a localization device and imaging of the biopsy specimen when performed. This accurately describes the procedure performed on the right breast with the placement of a Gelmark clip using stereotactic imaging. The other codes either describe open biopsies or separate procedures that are not applicable here.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 34
Mr. Roland has difficulty breathing and congestion with a productive cough. The physician takes frontal and lateral view chest X-rays in the office (the equipment is owned by the physician group). The physician reads the X-rays and determines a diagnosis of walking pneumonia. The physician's interpretation is placed in the patient's chart.
How does the physician bill for the chest X-ray?

  • A. 71046-TC
  • B. 71046-26
  • C. 71046-26-TC
  • D. 0

Answer: D

Explanation:
For a physician who owns the equipment and interprets the chest X-rays (both frontal and lateral views), code
71046 is used. This code includes both the technical and professional components, as the equipment is owned by the physician group and the physician also provides the interpretation.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 35
This 27-year-old male has morbid obesity with a BMI of 45 due to a high calorie diet. He has decided to have an open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The patient is brought to the operating room and placed in supine position.
A midline abdominal incision is made. The stomach is mobilized, and the proximal stomach is divided and stapled creating a small proximal pouch in continuity with the esophagus. A short limb of the proximal bowel of 155 cm is divided. It is brought up and anastomosed to the gastric pouch. The other end of the divided bowel is connected back into the distal small bowel to the short limb's gastric anastomosis to restore intestinal continuity. The abdominal incision is closed.
What are the procedure and diagnosis codes for this encounter?

  • A. 43847, E66.9, Z68.42
  • B. 43644, E66.01, Z68.43
  • C. 43645, E66.8, Z68.42
  • D. 43847, E66.01, Z68.42

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Open Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass: The procedure involves creating a small gastric pouch and anastomosing it to the jejunum.
* CPT Code 43847: This code describes a surgical gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass for morbid obesity, open.
* ICD-10-CM Code E66.01: This code represents morbid (severe) obesity due to excess calories.
* ICD-10-CM Code Z68.42: This code indicates a BMI of 45.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 36
A surgeon performs midface LeFort I reconstruction on a patient's facial bones to correct a congenital deformity. The reconstruction is performed in two pieces in moving the upper jawbone forward and repositioning the teeth of the maxilla of the mid face.
What CPT code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 37
A 3-day-old died in her sleep. The pediatrician determined this was the result of crib death syndrome. The parents give permission to refer the newborn for a necropsy. The pathologist receives the newborn with her brain and performs a gross and microscopic examination. The physician issues the findings and reports they are consistent with a normal female newborn.
What CPT code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 38
Patient has cervical spondylosis with myelopathy. The surgeon performed a bilateral posterior laminectomy with facetectomies at each level and foraminotomies performed between interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7.
Bilateral decompression of the nerve roots is achieved.
What CPT coding is reported?

  • A. 63040-50, 63043, 63043
  • B. 0
  • C. 63050-50
  • D. 63045, 63048

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.
* Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.
* Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.
CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.
References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 39
A 44-year-old female patient with chest pains had a CT of her chest that identified a mass in her left lower lung. The patient currently has ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver. The radiologist suspects the cancer has spread to her lungs. The physician performed an outpatient bronchoscopic biopsy and the pathology report documents the mass as a tumor of uncertain behavior.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this patient?

  • A. R91.8, C56.9, C78.7
  • B. D38.1, C56.9, C78.7
  • C. C78.02, C22.9, C79.82
  • D. C56.9, C78.7, C78.02

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 40
A 60-year-old male suffering from degenerative disc disease at the L3-L4 and L5-S1 levels was placed under general anesthesia. Using an anterior approach, the L3-L4 disc space was exposed. Using blunt dissection, the disc space was cleaned. The disc space was then sized and trialed. Excellent placement and insertion of the artificial disc at L3-L4 was noted. The area was inspected and there was no compression of any nerve roots. Same procedure was performed on L5-S1 level. Peritoneum was then allowed to return to normal anatomic position and entire area was copiously irrigated. The wound was closed in a layered fashion. The patient tolerated the discectomy and arthroplasty well and was returned to recovery in good condition. What CPT coding is reported for this procedure?

  • A. 22857 x 2
  • B. 22857, 22860
  • C. 0
  • D. 1

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 41
View MR 005398
MR 005398
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.
Procedure: Right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy.
Findings and Procedure: Under satisfactory general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the right flank position. Right flank and abdomen were prepared and draped out of the sterile field. Skin incision was made between the 11th and 12th ribs laterally. The incision was carried down through the underlying subcutaneous tissues, muscles, and fascia. The right retroperitoneal space was entered. Using blunt and sharp dissection, the right kidney was freed circumferentially. The right artery, vein, and ureter were identified. The ureter was dissected downward where it is completely obstructed in its distal extent. The ureter was clipped and divided distally. The right renal artery was then isolated and divided between 0 silk suture ligatures. The right renal vein was also ligated with suture ligatures and 0 silk ties. The right kidney and ureter were then submitted for pathologic evaluation. The operative field was inspected, and there was no residual bleeding noted, and then it was carefully irrigated with sterile water. Wound closure was then undertaken using 0 Vicryl for the fascial layers, 0 Vicryl for the muscular layers, 2-0 chromic for subcutaneous tissue, and clips for the skin. A Penrose drain was brought out through the dependent aspect of the incision. The patient lost minimal blood and tolerated the procedure well.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
The procedure involves a right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy for a nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.
* Procedure Description:
* Right nephrectomy (removal of the kidney).
* Partial ureterectomy (removal of part of the ureter).
* CPT Coding:
* 50220: Nephrectomy, including partial ureterectomy, any open approach.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
* CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on nephrectomy procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 42
A patient with malignant lymphoma is administered the antineoplastic drug Rituximab 800 mg and then 100 mg of Benadryl.
Which HCPCS Level II codes are reported for both drugs administered intravenously?

  • A. J9312 x 80, J1200 x 2
  • B. J9312 x 80, 00163 x 2
  • C. J9312, Q0163
  • D. J9312, J1200

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 43
A patient suffering from idiopathic dystonia is seen today and receives the following Botulinum injections: three muscle injections in both upper extremities and seven injections in six paraspinal muscles.
How are these injections reported according to the CPT guidelines?

  • A. 64642, 64643, 64647
  • B. 64642-50, 64643-50, 64647
  • C. 64644, 64647 x 7
  • D. 64642 x 3, 64642 x 3, 64647 x 7

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 44
A 5-year-old is brought to the QuickCare in the ED to repair two lacerations: a 3 cm laceration on her right arm and 2 cm laceration on her nose. Her arm is repaired with a simple one-layer closure with sutures. Her nose is repaired with a simple repair using tissue adhesive, 2-cyanoacrylate.
How are the repairs reported?

  • A. 12032, 12041-59
  • B. 12002, 12011-59
  • C. 0
  • D. 1

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 45
A patient with malignant lymphoma is administered the antineoplastic drug Rituximab 800 mg and then 100 mg of Benadryl.
Which HCPCS Level II codes are reported for both drugs administered intravenously?

  • A. J9312 x 80, J1200 x 2
  • B. J9312 x 80, 00163 x 2
  • C. J9312, Q0163
  • D. J9312, J1200

Answer: D

Explanation:
The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
* Procedure Description:
* Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.
* Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
* HCPCS Level II Coding:
* J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.
* For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.
* J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.
* For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.
References:
* HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).
* HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.


NEW QUESTION # 46
Which statement regarding lesion excision is TRUE?

  • A. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion, with margins, and intermediate closure when performed
  • B. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion, with margins, and simple (nonlayered) closure when performed
  • C. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion with margins, and complex closure when performed
  • D. Lesion excision codes are selected by measuring the greatest clinical diameter of a lesion excluding the margins required to complete the excision

Answer: B

Explanation:
Lesion excision codes in the CPT codebook include the removal of the lesion along with the necessary margins and a simple (nonlayered) closure when performed. These codes do not cover intermediate or complex closures, which are reported separately if performed. The measurement for selecting the appropriate lesion excision code includes the lesion and the margins required for complete excision.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition, lesion excision guidelines.


NEW QUESTION # 47
......

Correct and Up-to-date AAPC CPC BrainDumps: https://freetorrent.dumpsmaterials.com/CPC-real-torrent.html